/-
Copyright 2025 The Formal Conjectures Authors.
Licensed under the Apache License, Version 2.0 (the "License");
you may not use this file except in compliance with the License.
You may obtain a copy of the License at
https://www.apache.org/licenses/LICENSE-2.0
Unless required by applicable law or agreed to in writing, software
distributed under the License is distributed on an "AS IS" BASIS,
WITHOUT WARRANTIES OR CONDITIONS OF ANY KIND, either express or implied.
See the License for the specific language governing permissions and
limitations under the License.
-/importFormalConjecturesUtilimportFormalConjectures.ErdosProblems.«28»
The predicate for a function $g\colon\mathbb{N} → \mathbb{R})$ that
$$\lvert A\cap {1,\ldots,N}\rvert \gg \frac{N^{1/2}}{g(N)}$$
implies $\limsup 1_A\ast 1_A(n)=\infty$.
Given a set of functions $\mathbb{N} → \mathbb{R})$, we assert that for all $g$ in that set,
if $g(N) → \infty$ then
$$\lvert A\cap {1,\ldots,N}\rvert \gg \frac{N^{1/2}}{g(N)}$$
implies $\limsup 1_A\ast 1_A(n)=\infty$.
For what functions $g(N) → \infty$ is it true that
$$\lvert A\cap {1,\ldots,N}\rvert \gg \frac{N^{1/2}}{g(N)}$$
implies $\limsup 1_A\ast 1_A(n)=\infty$?
If we don't pose additional conditions on the functions, then this is a stronger form of the
Erdős-Turán conjecture, see Erdõs Problem 28,
(since establishing this for any function $g(N) → \infty$ would imply a positive solution to Erdős
Problem 28).